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Covaan_Meshuga -> RE: Naochide Laws (9/23/2008 12:21:28 AM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: drmark Abiyah, I have edited my post #10 to avoid the appearance of evil. I do not "try to twist" anyone's words. You are one of the experts on the subject of this particular thread and I am truly interested in understanding other Christians' attitudes toward apparent contradictions in Scripture. Thank you for your forgiveness. First, Mark, I am not an expert. I clearly stated that I have not looked into the Noachide Law because I find them irrelevant (see post 6, paragraph 1). Further, I stated that in my opinion, they have nothing whatsoever to do with Acts (see post 6, paragraph 1). I really came here to read what Bluethread had to write, because he knows more than I do about the subject or he would not have started it, I presumed. Then, after being here, I decided to ask the question of Bluethread and LBolt, which I asked in post 6, then to answer you because you are a friend and I saw you here after coming. I have nothing to teach here but also came here to learn. quote:
ORIGINAL: Covaan_Meshuga, post 9, re the Noachide Laws I don't have time to look into everything that is, in my opinion, false teaching quote:
ORIGINAL: drmark, in the rewritten post 10 Since abstaining from sexual immorality is not a false teaching, how does one determine which of the four specific rules in Acts 15 may be irrelevant for each individual. I was writing about the Noachide Laws, Mark. The reason false doctrine works is because it always carries with it a little truth, and this is what can confuse the reader/hearer. I was not writing about Acts 15. You changed the subject to Acts 15. quote:
ORIGINAL: Covaan_Meshuga, post 9, in answer to Mark's question about Acts 15 and 1 Corinthians 8 Paul, if he had contradicted the council, would have been reprobate quote:
ORIGINAL: drmark in answer to the above Maybe I am reading the passage all wrong, but Paul states in 1 Cor 8:7-12 that we are no worse if we eat this food or abstain and that the only sin comes from being seen eating this food by a weaker brother who may be emboldened to sin. I see no qualifications to the rule regarding food offered to idols which relates to merely causing our weaker brother to sin. So why wasn't Paul reprobate in tacitly allowing the stronger brother to eat the forbidden food? In order to understand the passage you brought up here, you cannot begin with verse 7, but you must back up to at least verse 4, and you need to understand what was going on. Every family was not a farming family, so these had to buy their meat at the market, just as we must. Paul is not going against the counsel when he tells them that the idols that the meat may have been sacrificed to are nothing. Sure, in Acts 15, the people were told not to eat things that were strangled, but not all meat that was sacrificed to idols was strangled. Such meat as that strangled retains large quantities of blood and purposely eating blood is absolutely forbidden. Paul says that there is one G-d and all other gods are nothing, so big deal if something was eaten, then it was discovered that it had been sacrificed. The only precautions about this were stated in that if one of the believers had a weakness regarding meat sacrificed to these non-existent gods, then they were to avoid eating it in order not to trouble that believer. Paul was writing, in the verses you brought up, about food offered to idols, not kosher and nonkosher foods.
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